https://youtubetranscript.com/?v=phArv969fwk
I was wondering if female orgasm is disproportionately likely to trigger male orgasm, because it could be an adaptation that’s used to elicit pregnancy, essentially. I don’t think it is. There’s no evidence that females that orgasm very infrequently have fewer babies, and actually women who don’t ever orgasm can be quite furry. So I don’t think it’s fundamentally that. Imagine a female who has two mating partners. She orgasms with one, pulling his ejaculate up to the cervix, and she skips orgasm with the other partner. So she, in effect, is mated with both men. So that is, you know, same mating success of the two men, if you just look at mating success. But she’s doing something more subtle that is differentially affecting the fertilizing capacity of the ejaculate of the two men. The ejaculate she pulls up has more potential for fertilization. And that’s a component of cryptic female choice.